Firstly, I'd like to re-emphasize that the commonly mistranslated verse of John 1: verse 1 is more accurately written, "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God's."

(Please Note, God's Is Possessive And Not Plural)

The following verse 3 also emphasizes that while God Almighty is the source of all creation, that creative process was THROUGH Jesus.

While The True God does have many other subjective Entities and Spirit-Like Souls whom he has created like Angels... No others are deemed gods.

In Islam there is only one God, and while there are those who are often confused as being gods... There is only One !

If Jesus is implied as a 'lesser-god' than the Almighty God... Then this too also becomes Polytheism, and can not be condoned.

To be sure, Moses, Jesus, and Mohammad all lived and died and then were received into God's presents immediately.

Moses, Jesus, and Mohammad all have their reward in Allah's presents, and are not dead.

I do agree since the bible was written in Hebrew, and i do not understand Hebrew, much was lost in translation from what I understand in what we study in the English language. We do not have the book of Mohammod. Therefore, I truly can not state to understand and know what the hebrew version states on that of Jesus, Moses, or Mohammod. Mohammod is not in my version of the bible.

Please do give a reference of a translation that does translate it correctly. Or something to show some relevance of your statement.



Verse 3 doesn't say anything about the father or whom ever you reference with "God almighty". Jesus IS God almighty. And verse 3 states plainly that the Word created all things and through him all things were created. Again doesn't say anything about any other being except the Word Jesus Christ.



Jesus isn't a "lesser-god" he IS God. Please do show me anywhere through the scriptures someone(s) else is referenced to be our God. Jesus never says his father is our father, nor that his father is our God.

Is he now?

Then why is he not referenced in the following and only Jesus is referenced?

Colossians 1:16
16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him

As a matter of fact, Jesus is God of gods.


Deuteronomy 10:17

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

Jesus does reference his father to be his God, this is true. But that is because Jesus came in the form of a servant.


Philippians 2:7
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

Yes Cowboy GH...

I'm very acquainted with Your views on this subject.

The problem is it includes huge grammatical oxy-morons and frequent vacillations between that which You argue is 'one,' but 'separate', but 'the-same', but 'independent', but 'equal', but 'dependant', and so-forth.

(There's Never A Clear Answer)

****************************************************************************************************************************************

Seakolony...

Most of what is written as what is often called The Old Testament is in Hebrew.

Most of what was originally written in what is often called The New Testament was actually in Aramaic, but was then translated into Greek.

Virtually nothing exists to day in the original Aramaic... We've just got Greek transcriptions, and absolutely every other translation of the Gospels and Letters Of The Apostles are derived from them.

Here-in is the problem... Our best assumptions as to what was originally written, are just that... "Assumptions !"

As for 'Mohammad's Book'... There is none !

If You're referring to the Quran then it needs to be understood...

Absolutely none of the Quran (In Arabic) is a personal view or articulation of Mohammad.

By the Quran's own claim it is entirely the words of the Holy Spirit, and those who chose to ignore or discredit it will not be forgiven in this life of the next.

I do not chose to ignore anything. I accept I do not know it.

I've offered a photo-copy of John 1 verse 1 from a Greek Bible...

You could probably look-it-up on-line, if You really wanted...

Lastly, if You don't want to take my word for it, You can contact Jehovah's Witnesses and get a copy of their Diglottic Translation of the Greek Christian Scriptures.

(They'd Be Happy To Help You, Cowboy GH)

Doesn't include any grammatical oxymoron or anything of such. They are "one" the word(s) translated into that are in reference to goals, efforts, desires, ect they have the same mind set. There is no "arguing", they agree on everything possible and work together as "one" unit. They are one God just as a country has one "government". There are multiple persons inside that government, yet they are "one". And when it boils down to it, it doesn't matter bout any other being but Jesus Christ. For he is our God. Again, he NEVER refers to his father as our father, nor our God. Only ever says he himself created us and he is our God. It was the LORD God eg., Jesus Christ that made everything, man, woman, heaven, angels, ect.

I don't speak with Johvahs, not to sound crude, but on this level I don't really care what they think/believe. As they don't believe Jesus to be God, so right there automatically shows they have mistaken something along the lines and that could possibly mean multiple other things they teach to be incorrect.



I've offered a photo-copy of John 1 verse 1 from a Greek Bible...

You could probably look-it-up on-line, if You really wanted...

Lastly, if You don't want to take my word for it, You can contact Jehovah's Witnesses and get a copy of their Diglottic Translation of the Greek Christian Scriptures.

(They'd Be Happy To Help You, Cowboy GH)


And if the scriptures were translated incorrectly as you state, then why does every english version state it the same? If there was error would they not rewrite the scripture and or translate it correctly in another translation?

That which You know nothing about... You, therefor cannot be held accountable for.

BUT TAKE WARNING... !

The deliberate assumption 'ignorance-is-bliss' will also not be an acceptable plea on Judgement Day.

Koine Greek - Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεός ἦν ὁ λόγος

translates to

English - In beginning was the word, and the word was with the god, and god was the word.

Both are John 1:1. Please do give an example through scriptures of what you claim here.




And if the scriptures were translated incorrectly as you state, then why does every english version state it the same? If there was error would they not rewrite the scripture and or translate it correctly in another translation?

There's a perfectly logical explanation for this, Cowboy GH.

It's an Ecumenical Conspiracy that comes right from the Vatican.

It's not an "ERROR"... It's a deliberate abrogation that has been orchestrated for the past 17 hundred years.

Christendom can't revoke the idea of the dogma of The Holy Trinity any more than 'YOU' can.

I haven't a clue what this is, but I do know it isn't Greek !

(What Site Did You Find This Ishkabibbel, Cowboy GH ?)

I get that and so it goes in the bible. My grandfather was a preacher. I tried to find to be enlightened as to all aspects but have been unable to thus far. At least an English version.I will check my library as I tried to download it earlier.

"You heard that I said to you, ‘I go away, and I will come to you.’ If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I.'" (John 14:28).

I don't see how Moses could have gone to Heaven when he died.

John 3:13
No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven—the Son of Man.

This was written long after Moses was dead. I think Moses is sleeping until the time of the first resurrection.

Revelation 20:4-6
4 I saw thrones on which were seated those who had been given authority to judge. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony about Jesus and because of the word of God. They[a] had not worshiped the beast or its image and had not received its mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life and reigned with Christ a thousand years. 5 (The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection. 6 Blessed and holy are those who share in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years.

No one will ever go to "Heaven", not as we know it now anyway. Your revelations post is speaking of the new Heaven and Earth. Heaven was made for the angels.

Everyone that has "died" since Jesus was here, are "sleeping", they are in "Hell", the "Grave", "Sheol" awaiting Jesus' return. Because when Jesus returns, he will make a new Heaven and Earth, join them together, and that is where "paradise" comes into place.

I mean it's a nice thought to think of a passed dear one that they are in Heaven with God now, but point blank, that isn't the case. They are sleeping awaiting God's return to redeem them/us in the paradise of the new Heaven and Earth.