Actually, it wasn't just "in Christ's day" it was not until quite recently that the word "I" existed in the majority of languages. The same is true of other 'personal' nouns.

You was "thee","thou" or "one" depending on the structure of the sentance.

Us & We, included the I which was not proper. The correct (mosly the only) grammar was to use the 'proper' descriptive name of the 'group' being discussed or written of even when that group included the "I".

Even today there are languages that do not recognize abstracts, such as the difference between "over the table" or "on the table". This makes it difficult, even today, to translate. Is a table cloth on or over a table?

These are all issues when attempting to translate. Making matters more difficult, is 'dialect'. No matter what language, when it existed, there were dialects. In American we have more dilects based on slang, redefinition and simply lack of education for proper english, than there are languages spoken here.

Now imagine anyone 500 to 1500 years hence, attempting to translate much of our written word, even if it's supposed to be the same language, much less another one.

TO Redy:

I don't know much about Greek etymology. Are you saying that Koine Greek did not have singular and plural first person pronouns? Hence, the writer of Matthew would not have used words denoting "I" or "we". So, are they a Modern Greek invention, and therefore anachronistic to first century Palestine?

Any references are appreciated.

Sorry for interrupting the thread.